Hi Everyone,
I believe that I know the answer to the senario that I am about to write, but I want to make sure and it doesn't hurt us to have a lesson now and then. Here is the scene:
A buyer contacts an agent in a different state than where the buyer currently lives. The agent at no time states how she is representing the buyer, however, does state that the state is a buyer beware state. Once the agent has shown several houses and the buyer decides on one and the negotiations are verbally done, the agent lets the buyer know she is working for the seller as a single agent and the buyer as a transaction broker. The buyer does some research on this and finds that nearly all of the agents in the area work this way.
Questions? I have two...is it possible for the agent to even work as a single agent and a transaction broker in the same transaction...and shouldn't she have disclosed it sooner or did she by stating it is a buyer beware state?
Thanks for any answers!
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